Tuesday, June 09, 2009

Ramana, Vedas and His Dialogues

What did bhagavaan Ramana mean when he referred to as the scriptures? Did He mean the scriptural words of all the world, which could be interpreted as advaitic, or did He mean the Vedas (essentially Vedanta)? More precisely, when He used the word "scriptures" in His works (see the next question), what were the precise words He used? (Remember that He spoke only the vernacular languages).

Are the Dialogues of the Ramana proper reference material, or are secondary material to His original works (like naan-yaar, ullanDu-naarpaandu) and translations (like Vivekachudamani, Shri Dakshinamurthy Stotram)?



1 comment:

rk said...

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